Talk:Cojones
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Why for the love of Christ isn't the spanish definition in first position? What kind of chickenshit operation are we running here? --Crid 05:10, 21 May 2006 (UTC)
- This is the English Wikipedia. Voretus the Benevolent 06:47, 23 May 2006 (UTC)
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This page was deleted after vfd talk in early 2004. The Bush/Blair story of later that month warranted its restoration. Pete/Pcb21 (talk) 20:47, 19 Apr 2004 (UTC)
The recent edit from "Spanish" to "with a nod to its non-English origins" is unhelpful. The word is basically pronounced as it is Spanish, except with an (American) English accent not a Spanish accent. Pete/Pcb21 (talk) 22:34, 19 Apr 2004 (UTC)
- OK, try the revised version. But I'm not accepting "ca-hoo-nas" as "true to its Spanish origin". –Hajor 23:52, 19 Apr 2004 (UTC)
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- The only way I've ever heard it pronounced (and I've heard it from lots of wankers ... er ... erudite people) is something like kuh-HOE-naze (I'm not going to try putting this into proper phonetic symbols). Metamagician3000 09:58, 26 February 2006 (UTC)
I've just added a load of stuff and separated its recent use in English from its existence as an actual Spanish word. — Chameleon 15:40, 26 May 2005 (UTC)
I can't reference this, but I always associate the popularisation of the word in English with Ernest Hemingway. Can anyone help with this? If I'm right, it seems notable. Metamagician3000 09:51, 26 February 2006 (UTC)
Someone asked me to provide evidence that it is used outside the US. I can't do that, so now I've been challenged I won't re-edit. I see no references at all in the article to support how and where the word is used, so I'm surprised that someone is being so picky in an article that basically doesn't cite its sources. I'll just use the talk page to say for the record that I've heard this usage in Australia, albeit infrequently rather than as "popular slang", for the past 20 years. I wouldn't have thought that this was a terriby controversial claim. Ideally, the article should somehow reflect that the usage has been around for a long time, probably in all English-speaking countries, even if it has only recently become "popular". Otherwise, the article doesn't give the full picture. However, I can't prove this from written sources - I don't even know where to start in proving a point like that without relying on personal experience, so I'll let it drop as far the article itself is concerned. Maybe someone with the relevant skills in this field will be able to think about it. Cheers! Metamagician3000 00:41, 27 February 2006 (UTC)
- However, it only took me a second of googling to confirm that Hemingway uses tbe word and concept all the time, and that it is even quite important in his work. I think this is notable in itself and easily demonstrable (though it would take a bit of time). I'm pretty sure that the use of the word, often a bit ironically, by educated people over a long time comes from acquaintance with Hemingway. I'll leave that thought with you, because I just don't have the time or expertise in language trends to prove most of it. Metamagician3000 00:54, 27 February 2006 (UTC)
