Talk:Classical Japanese language
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- The change of the prenasalized consonants to voiced consonants
Between 900-1200 AD? The Ars Grammaticae Linguae Iaponicae, dated 1632, describes a Japanese that still retains prenasalized consonants (the author spells them with a tilde beforehand, e.g. Nãgasaqi) and they seem to be in place for some time after, though perhaps in the process of being lost (see, e.g., Lexicon Universale (1698) which shows both Yendo/Jendo and Jedo for Edo. [1] (and which also has Nangazachum —Muke Tever 14:40, 21 Apr 2005 (UTC)
This articulation is retained to this day in some outlying regions. Perhaps he means the standard language. Although /g/ is a special case - intervocalic /g/ is (was? signs point towards loss of such articulation) pronounced [ŋ] in the Tokyo area. - 刘 (劉) 振霖 03:45, Jun 8, 2005 (UTC)
- OJ did not have 8 vowels. Several of them are clearly in complementary distribution; if I remember correctly they can be reduced to 4 phonemes. (Part of the motivation for an 8-vowel system might be to make Japanese more compatible with Altaic languages.)
- Also, what's the evidence for a shift from syllabic to moraic timing? kwami 07:31, 2005 July 14 (UTC)
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- I don't know, but is there really any difference between syllable-timing and mora-timing in a language with no long vowels and no closed syllables? In such a language, I would've thought every syllable would be monomoraic, so any change would be solely one of terminology and the statement empty. —Felix the Cassowary (ɑe hɪː jɐ) 06:03, 15 December 2005 (UTC)
